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Gawain's avatar

Over the years, I've seen repeatedly that "pre-fisc" inequality of the Nordics was pretty high, but it was all equalized post fisc. This paper argues otherwise - or that only 1/3 was post fisc. So, that's a surprise if true. I'll have to go and dig around on this to see if they're measuring things differently somehow. The data - on the table on the wikipedia page shows the nordics with moderate gini pre-fisc among OECD, but comparatively lower gini post-fisc which implies a higher than average tax/redistribution level of effort. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_income_inequality?utm_source=chatgpt.com

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